David Cordell
There are two issues that might be of interest to some classmates, but I am not sure how reliable the information is. Does anyone know anything about either of these two concepts?
1. Quotation from Kiplinger concerning Texas: --
"In addition, a homeowner who is 65 or older may qualify to defer their property taxes until after he or she no longer owns or occupies the home as a residence. Property taxes (and interest) continue to accrue during the deferral period. Once the deferral ends, the taxes and interest must be paid."
Is this correct, and what is meant by "may qualify"?
2. I have read that the property tax freeze for 65+ individuals in Texas is somewhat transferable. That is, for example, let's say your property taxes were frozen at $4,000 but would be $5,000 without the freeze. That ratio of 80% could be carried to a new property. I'm not sure of exactly how it works, or if it really exists. But let's say you sell your house and buy a new one that has property taxes of $6,000. According to this formula, your taxes would be 0.80 X $6,000 = $4,800.
I don't know if 2 above really exists, what the formula is, or what restrictions there are, e.g. must be in the same city, county, school district, or whatever.
Does anyone know anything about these two concepts?
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